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I know that SQL Server doesn't support using a view as the reference for a foreign key constraint, is there a reason (i.e. something to do with the relational model) this is the case? It seems like it would be useful....

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I've asked a related question (not the why but how it could be done with other ways): Are there DBMS that allow a Foreign Key that References a View (and not only base tables)? It probably has to do with the complexity of implementing such a feature. The relational model is fine with such a concept. – ypercube Nov 30 '12 at 2:52

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There's no fundamental problem with doing this, since tables and views are both relation variables in the relational model. Foreign key constraints are just a particular subclass of general constraints, which standard SQL implements using CREATE ASSERTION so there's no particular SQL language difficulty either.

According to this Connect item it's simply a matter of prioritization. If you would find this feature useful, vote for the item and particularly add details of your use case in the comments.

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I suspect it would have to be limited to indexed views to be feasible. – Cade Roux Nov 30 '12 at 19:58

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