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If you have table a (column x) which is 1 to many with table b (columns x, y) which is 1 to many with table c (columns y, z), it's pretty straight forward to define the foreign keys.

If for performance reasons, table c was altered to be (columns x, y, z) is there a way to specify that table c (columns x, y) have a foreign key relationship to table b's (columns x, y)?

Previously table c contained 2 single column foreign keys x --> table a and y --> table b. While this is correct, it creates erroneous results when trying to use commercial tools to create database diagrams.

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migrated from stackoverflow.com May 20 '13 at 1:29

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2 Answers

up vote 0 down vote accepted

I have no problems:

create table a(x int primary key);
create table b(x int references a, y int, primary key(x,y));
create table c(x int, y int, z int, foreign key(x,y) references b);
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i'll try that. x is not a primary key in b right now. –  dan- May 20 '13 at 18:39
    
Post the DDL statements of your tables. –  msi77 May 20 '13 at 19:12
    
thanks. that worked. my mistake was not including both columns in the primary key for the intermediate table. –  dan- May 20 '13 at 19:19
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You can create a composite foreign key from B to C:

alter table TableC
     add constraint FK_TableC_XY
     foreign key (x, y)
     references TableB (x, y)

That's better than two foreign keys: this will ensure that the combination of (x, y) is present, and not just the individual values.

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actually, thats what i want to do but sql server will not let me because table b (x) has already been declared as a foreign key from table a (x). –  dan- May 20 '13 at 13:56
    
as a follow on to the question which would be higher performing: a composite key which can be validated from one table or two foreign keys which can be validated from two different tables. –  dan- May 22 '13 at 15:55
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