If view 1 uses tables A and B, and a user has SELECT granted on view 1 is that sufficient for the user to select from view 1 or does he also need SELECT granted on tables A and B.
Specific details on my situation (in regards to Erik's comment):
I thought I understood permissions, but I'm a little confused right now.
I have a user specifically for testing permissions. I have view 1 in database 1 that references view 2 in database 2 and view 3 in database 2. View 2 in database 2 references table A in database 3. View 3 in database 2 references table B in database 2.
So at the individual entity level, I slowly was adding permissions as necessary and check with my test user to see what error I get back from SSMS.
I first granted select permissions to the test user on view 1. Then based on the errors I was getting, I also needed to grant select on view 2 and table A (that is referenced by view 2). But I did NOT need to grant select permissions to my test user on view 3. This is where I'm confused.
I then assumed my test user might be part of a role (or something) that gives it full select access on database 2, but then if I try to select directly from view 3 it gets a permission denied error, even though it CAN select from view 1 (which references view 3).
TL;DR: Why can my test user account select from a view but can't directly select from one of the entities that that view is dependent on?...is that normal permissions behavior?